You know, it is really astounding to hear. Does the member understand that if you reduce, let’s say, the cost of construction to a developer by a couple of thousand dollars—let’s say $4,000, as he’s been quoting—that this does not necessarily mean that the cost of purchase to a new home purchaser will be minus $4,000? Home builders will sell for whatever they can sell for. If they can sell for more, they’ll sell for more. Cost of construction does not necessarily equate to cost of purchase, so why do you keep simplifying it? Why does he keep saying it in this way? Because that’s simply not correct.